Twoblock wrote on May 20^th, 2004 at 9:49pm:

Lawyer If one files a court action against the polygrapher and his agency charging them with falsly labeling one a liar (which essentially blacklists one with all other agencies), isn't it up to that side to prove their innocense? Especially when it can be proved, for instance, that one never used or sold drugs? Also, isn't blacklisting against the law?

It is an old axiom but it is true.  It is impossible to prove a negative.